How does Shakespeare use language differentley for Shylock and Portia?

Essay by grm1512 July 2014

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George Mansfield English Essay 22/12/2013

How does Shakespeare use language differently for Portia and Shylock?

In the judgement scene of Act 4 Scene 1 Shylocks insistence on the literal implementation of the bond makes him believe that he has more power than the Christians. With Christianity being the rather superior world view at the time, therefore most of the judges in the court would have been Christian. Thus through the language of Shylock I find him very self-confident as he undoubtedly believes that he will win because of the bond he possesses. However he is likely to win the case at this point but Shylock seems to present this rather arrogant characteristic throughout the script.

An example of this in act 4 scene 1 is where Shylock exclaims ''I have possessed'd your grace of what I purpose…''. The quote from Line 35 his first in scene 1 of act 4.

Shakespeare's use of language confirms Shylocks initiative to gain a successful outcome from the case and confirm he is not going to show mercy to Antonio for Shylock wants revenge to himself. Showing how Shakespeare so brilliantly portrays Shylock's basic qualities (in this instance cunning) through the language in which he gives to characters in his plays. He is insistent on winning the case even though the powerful (so they were in the setting of the plays' society) Christians were determined to give him his money at the court, " A weigh of carrion flesh'' is better than ''To receive three thousand ducats''. Shakespeare's use of the carrion flesh symbol appears to show Shylock's superiority that Antonio's flesh is simply not edible but Shylock needs it. After reading and understanding Shakespeare's intent of the sentence I have come to a realization that carrion not only...