The Wife of Bath tale! Through the wife of Bath, does Chaucer contradict or uphold the misogynist views of her time? Geoffrey Chaucer was born in the year of 1340/44 and died in the year of 1400. Chaucer was born in London, England. Chaucer wrote the Canterbury tales, which at that time was very famous. Chaucer was famous for his poems.
In my own opinion I think Geoffrey Chaucer was not against women. I believe this because in his writings he wanted to show the role that women played in their own society. I believe this because if Chaucer were against women, he would show his hatred towards them, for example he would exaggerate more on how women are iniquitous to there husbands.
In the tale "The Wife of Bath" Chaucer never intimated his hatred for women, he took the role of society and added that to his tale.
For example, from the handout marriage in the last page from Gies and Gies castle 87, and 90, it said, "Love could not exist without jealously" and "Jealously must have existed." To make my point, I am saying that at the time Chaucer is including the women's role.
Nevertheless, I think that Chaucer wanted to prove or to show the public about how badly women were treated, and in order to prove this he wrote all these poems, example: Canterbury tales, etc! I also believe if he was against women then why did he say women want power, and at the end of his tale, the former ugly/poor old lady did have power.